Date:  Thu, 23 Dec 1993 17:58:07 CST

From:  "Donald M. Lance" <ENGDL[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]MIZZOU1.BITNET>

Subject: Re: modren metathesis



From my experience, the notion  'intersentential switching' is manufactured.

Status: RO



The phenomenon I know as code-switching does not follow sentence boundaries,

nor even terminable units (t-units). Is the use of 'code-mixing' for intra-

and 'code-switching' for inter-sentential XXing based on empirical research?

I've been doing other things in recent years and don't know whether this

distinction was "proposed" or "found". Code-switching data that I'm familiar

with suggests that the lexicon drives both morphology-in-action and syntax-in-

action, so switching would occur at word- or morpheme-boundary -- which it

does quite often.          DMLance