Date: Fri, 3 Jan 1997 08:14:45 -0600

From: Natalie Maynor maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]RA.MSSTATE.EDU

Subject: Re: non-negative polarity "anymore"



Is this mass ignorance on the part of the users,

or are the definitions changing?



I'm surprised that nobody has replied to this yet (or at least not on

the list). If by "mass ignorance" you mean that large numbers of

people are using the words in these ways, wouldn't that be the same

thing as "the definitions changing"? In other words, why the "or"?

--Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]ra.msstate.edu)