Date: Tue, 7 Mar 1995 08:22:45 -0500

From: "William A. Kretzschmar, Jr." billk[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]ATLAS.UGA.EDU

Subject: Re: AWFUL OFFAL



On Mon, 6 Mar 1995, Jim Ague, ague[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]redrck.enet.dec.com, Col Spgs, CO wrote:



According to my Webster's NW, even though the same lex symbols are used

for

both words, one word has the 'F' sound pronounced with the first

syllable,

of-l, and the other word has the 'F' in with the second

syllable, o-f'l.



Does this still make the words homophones? -- Jim





I can say from experience that syllable division in dictionary

pronunciations is not the most reliable indicator of homophony. The kind

of variation noted here, essentially a contrast between "syllabic l" and a

syllable represented with an unstressed vowel and final l, while certainly

distinguishable and capable of marking contrasts, is very often optional.



Regards, Bill

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Bill Kretzschmar Phone: 706-542-2246

Dept. of English FAX: 706-542-2181

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