Date:    Sun, 22 Mar 1998 11:13:06 -0500
<br>From:    Gerald Cohen  gcohen[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]UMR.EDU 
<br>Subject: "divide and conquer"
<br>
<br>  Last week I was asked about the origin of "divide and conquer." I checked
<br>E. Cobham Brewer's _The Dictionary of Phrase and Fable_ and found "DIVIDE
<br>AND GOVERN,"  given as a maxim of Machavelli's.
<br>
<br>   Is "DIVIDE AND GOVERN" the same as "DIVIDE AND CONQUER?"  Do these two
<br>expressions represent merely two different translations of the underlying
<br>Italian expression used by Machiavelli?  Might anyone be able to clarify
<br>this matter?
<br>
<br>--Gerald Cohen
<br>
<br>
<br>
<br>gcohen[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]umr.edu
<br>