Date: Fri, 27 Oct 1995 08:46:29 -0400

From: Wayne Glowka wglowka[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]MAIL.GAC.PEACHNET.EDU

Subject: Re: folk/folklore



An astute sophomore in my linguistics class yesterday asked why "folk" has

no /l/ but why the same element in "folklore" does. I had never noticed

this difference in my own pronunciation before, but I maintain it. Anybody

got a good explanation? My only guess is that "folklore" with an /l/ in

"folk" is a reading-influenced pronunciation.



Are you sure you and your student aren't hearing the /l/ in "lore" rather

than in "folk"? I'm sitting here saying "folk," "folklore," "folkdance"

over and over (obviously not the best way to test these things) and can't

hear any /l/ in any of the folks.



Why would "folklore" be more reading-influenced that other "folks"? If

the first l in "folklore" really is being pronounced, could it be in

anticipation of the second l?

--Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]ra.msstate.edu)



I say the /l/ in "folkdance" too. "Folks" (as oppposed to "folk") is a

word I use a lot as part of my basic vocabulary for kinship. It means

'parents' to me (i. e., "Your folks" = "your parents").







Wayne Glowka

Professor of English

Director of Research and Graduate Student Services

Georgia College

Milledgeville, GA 31061

912-453-4222

wglowka[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]mail.gac.peachnet.edu