Date:  Fri, 27 Oct 1995 07:36:09 -0500

From:  Natalie Maynor <maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]RA.MSSTATE.EDU>

Subject: Re: folk/folklore



> An astute sophomore in my linguistics class yesterday asked why "folk" has

> no /l/ but why the same element in "folklore" does. I had never noticed

> this difference in my own pronunciation before, but I maintain it. Anybody

> got a good explanation? My only guess is that "folklore" with an /l/ in

> "folk" is a reading-influenced pronunciation.



Are you sure you and your student aren't hearing the /l/ in "lore" rather

than in "folk"? I'm sitting here saying "folk," "folklore," "folkdance"

over and over (obviously not the best way to test these things) and can't

hear any /l/ in any of the folks.



Why would "folklore" be more reading-influenced that other "folks"? If

the first l in "folklore" really is being pronounced, could it be in

anticipation of the second l?

  --Natalie (maynor[AT SYMBOL GOES HERE]ra.msstate.edu)